H.P.U. M.A. POLITICAL SCIENCE ENTRANCE TEST 2017

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1. Who said that  “State is a society of societies”?

(A)    A.D. Lindsay

(B)      H.J. Laski

(C)    Hegel

(D)      Plato.

Ans —-A

2. “The group is real in the same sense that the state is real”. This statement characterizes the state

(A)    As an association of associations

(B)      As an organization

(C)    As an instrument of action

(D)      As an institution.

Ans —-A

3. While bringing out the relationship between state and society, which one of the following statements is not true?

(A)    In point of time society is prior to the state

(B)      Society and state differ in their functions

(C)    Society and state differ in their technique of operation

(D)      The area of the state is always coextensive with that of society.

Ans —-D

4. According to John Locke, man is by nature

(A)    Egoistic

(B)      Quarrelsome

(C)    Unsocial

(D)      Social and Rational.

Ans —-D

5. The evolutionary theory offers a satisfactory explanation of the origin of the state because it is

(A)    Logically consistent

(B)      Historically based

(C)    Based on the nature of man

(D)      Morally justified.

Ans —-B

6. Which of the following theories say “Some basic rights can exist outside and evern prior to society”?

(A)    Legal Theory

(B)      Historical Theory

(C)    Welfare Theory

(D)      Natural Rights Theory.

Ans —-D

7. Democratic socialism differs from Marxian Socialism on the basis of its emphasis on

(A)    Social Equality

(B)      Political Equality

(C)    Economic Equality

(D)      Freedom of the Individual.

Ans —-D

8. Which one of the following is an essential feature of a totalitarian system?

(A)    A weak legislature

(B)      A unitary constitution

(C)    Absence of legally recognized opposition

(D)      Centralized economic planning.

Ans —-C

9. The liberal theory of development has come to be associated with which of the following political processes?

(A)    Modernization

(B)      Industrialization

(C)    Scientific Revolution

(D)      Population Growth.

Ans —-B

10. A rigid constituntion is one

(A)    that is not written

(B)      that does not permit amendment with simple majority

(C)    that can be amended with two-third majority

(D)      that can be amended only by a special procedure, different from that for ordinary law making.

Ans —-D

11. The Head of the State under a Parliamentary government

(A)    is an elected representative

(B)     is a hereditary person

(C)    is a nominated person

(D)      may be any one of the above.

Ans —-D

12. The most essential feature of a federal government is

(A)    Supremacy of the Parliament

(B)      Supremacy of the Judiciary

(C)    Division of powers between the Federal and the State Governments

(D)      Single Citizenship.

Ans —-C

13. In relation to the State government, local government exercises

(A)    Independent authority

(B)      Co-ordinate authority

(C)    Delegated authority

(D)      Superior authority.

Ans —-C

14. In which of the following National Congress sessions was the “Quit India” resolution passed?

(A)    Lahore Session of 1926

(B)      Madras Session of 1927

(C)    Bombay Session of 1942

(D)      Bombay Session of 1946.

Ans —-C

15. Who among the following can be asked to make a statement in the Indian Parliament?

(A)    Any sitting MLA

(B)      Chief of the Army Staff

(C)    Solicitor General of India

(D)      The Chief Election Commissioner of India.

Ans —-C

I6. What was the exact constitutional status of the lndian Republic on 26th January, 1950?

(A)    A Democratic Republic

(B)      A Sovereign Democratic Republic

(C)    A Sovereign Secular Democratic Republic

(D)      A Sovereign, Socialist Secular Democratic Republic.

Ans —-B

17. Which one of the following statements is not correct?

(A)    Legal rights are granted by the state

(B)      Legal rights are enforced by the Courts of Law

(C)    Legal rights are natural rights

(D)      Legal rights are unchangcable.

Ans —-C

18. Realism as a general philosophy of International Politics can be more or less considered as an anti-thesis of

(A)    Fascism

(B)      Marxism

(C)    idealism

(D)      individualism.

Ans —-C

19. The Social Contract theory differ from the Divine Origin theory because

(A)    it argues that the state and the government are human institutions

(B)      it considers free will or the people to be the basis of political authority

(C)    it upholds the responsibility of the ruler to the ruled

(D)      All of the above.

Ans —-D

20. The natural rights of the people according to Locke are

(A)    Right to self-preservation and right to property

(B)     Right to life. liberty and property

(C)    Right to life and equality before law

(D)      Right to opt out of contractual obligations,

Ans —-B

21. The most widely accepted theory of the origin of the state is

(A)    The Marxist Theory

(B)      The Social Contract Theory

(C)    The Emlutionary Theory

(D)      The Diw’ne Origin Theory.

Ans —-C

22. Which one of the following is a feature of rights?

(A)    Rights are static

(B)      Rights are anti-state

(C)    Rights. are unlimited

(D)      Rights are indispensable.

Ans —-D

23. Which theory defends free competition to possess and acquire property?

(A)    Social Contract Theory

(B)      Liberal Individualist Theory

(C)    Marxist Theory

(D)      None of the above.

Ans —-B

24. According to Marx state is

(A)    The divine institution

(B)      A natural institution

(C)    A man made institution

(D)      The result of evolution.

Ans —-C

25- The view that state is “an ethical institution which is indispensable for the full moral development of man” is attributed to

(A)    Classical liberals

(B)      Marxist

(C)    ldealists

(D)      Anarchist.

Ans —-C

26. Austinian theon of sovereignty is based on

(A)    Force

(B)      Public Opinion

(C)    Representative Democracy

(D)      Pluralism.

Ans —-A

27. In what way was the “Quit India Movemenr” different from earlier movvement in the Indian  freedom struggle?

(A)    It sparked off at the same time in all part of india

(B)      It was launched by a group of radicals

(C)    It was violent

(D)      It was not supported by the Indian National congress.

Ans —-C

28. Who said, “ every state is known by the rights that is maintains” ?

(A)    Laski

(B)      Maclver

(C)    karl marx

(D)      Locke.

Ans —-A

29. The territory of a state under international law does not include .

(A)    The seas beyond 25 Km. from its coast

(B)      the sub-soil

(C)    The surface land  

(D)      The air-space over it.

Ans —-A

30. What does sovereignty of state imply?

(A)    Power should vest in the people

(B)      The State should be free externally

(C)    The state should be free from subordination both externally and internally

(D)      The state should have a democratically elected government

Ans —-C

31. Who said. “Political party is an organized body with voluntary membership” ?

(A)    Finer

(B)      Maclver

(C)    J.S. Mill

(D)      None of the above.

Ans —-A

32. Parliamentry government cannot operate without

(A)    A written constitution

(B)      An Independent judiciary

(C)    Political parties

(D)      The pressure groups.

Ans —-C

33. When does a state lose its sovereignty ?

(A)    When the head of the State dies

(B)      When there is a change of government due to military coup

(C)    when a state is conquered by another state

(D)      Sovereignty can never be lost .

Ans —-C

34. The Twelfth Schedule of the Indian Constitution was inserted by ——— Amendment Act .

(A)    71st

(B)   72nd

(C)    73rd

(D)      74th.

Ans —-D

35. Who has the power to decide about an election petition in india?

I. District Courts

II. Supreme courts

III. High Courts

IV. Tribunals

(A)    I, II and III

(B)      IV only

(C)    lI and IV

(D)      II and III

Ans —-D

36. For the State Assembly Constituencies who appoints the Returning Officers?

(A)    The President

(B)      The Governor

(C)    The Election Commission

(D)      The Central Government.

Ans —-C

37. A political party to be recognized as a national party in India, it must be recognized in at least ———-states.

(A)    Three

(B)      Four

(C)    Five

(D)      Six.

Ans —-B

38. Which among the following was the first programme launched by Government of India to implement the Article 47 of the Directive Principles of State Policy?

(A)    Integrated Rural Development Programme

(B)      Community Development Programme

(C)    National Rural Employment Programme

(D)      Desert Development Programme.

Ans —-B

39. Which among the following justifies the reason that Directive Principles were made explicitly unjustifiable?

(A)    The State may not have the political will to implement the Directive Principles

(B)      The State may not need to implement the Directive Principles as Fundamental Rights were made justifiable

(C)    The implementation of Directive Principles needs resources which the state may not have

(D)      The Constitution does not provide any clear guidelines to implement the Directive Principal

Ans —-C

40. In which of the following decades India saw the maximum number of prime Ministers?

(A)    1951-60

(B)      1961-70

(C)    1971-80

(D)      1991-2000.

Ans —-D

41. Which article deals with the procedure for amendment of the Indian Constitution?

(A)    Article 356

(B)      Article 360

(C)    Article 368

(D)      Article 370.

Ans —-C

42. Under the provisions of which Article of the Constitution is President’s rule imposed in a state?

(A)    Article 352

(B)     Article 350

(C)    Article 356

(D)      Article 360.

Ans —-C

43. The position of the President of India is comparable to

(A)    British Monarch

(B)      US President

(C)    Russian President

(D)      German Chancellor.

Ans —-A

44. According to the provisions of the Constitution of India, which one of the following cannot be dissolved but can be abolished?

(A)    Lok Sabha

(B)      Rajya Sabha

(C)    Legislative Assembly

(D)      Legislative Council.

Ans —-D

45. Human Rights Day is observed all over the world every year on

(A)    10 December

(B)      7 November

(C)    24 October

(D)      25 December.

Ans —-A

46. Which one of the following has got most effective provisions towards the establishment of socio-economic justice in India?

(A)    Fundamental Rights

(B)      Fundamental Duties

(C)    Preamble of the Constitution

(D)      Directive Principles of the State Policy.

Ans —-D

47. From which one of the following countries did we borrow the doctrine of Judicial revies ?

(A)    Great Britain

(B)      USA

(C)    France

(D)      Switzerland.

Ans —-B

48. Which of the following is not a member of the SAARC?

(A)    Myanmar

(B)      India

(C)    Pakistan

(D)      Nepal.

Ans —-A

49. The first Non-Alignment Summit Conference was held in 1961 in

(A)    Cairo (Egypt)

(B)      Belgrade (Yugoslavia)

(C)    New Delhi (India)

(D)      Havana (Cuba).

Ans —-B

50. In the Panchayati Raj System, The panchayat samiti is constituted at the  

(A)    Village lavel

(B)      District level

(C)    City level

(D)      Block level.

Ans —-D

51. Who is responsible for the registration of voters?

(A)    The government

(B)      The Voters

(C)    Political Parties

(D)      Election Commission.

Ans —-D

52. In the event of the resignation or death of the Prime Minister in India

(A)    The Ministry is dissolved

(B)      Fresh general elections must take place

(C)    The Cabinet may choose another leader

(D)      The President decides what to do.

Ans —-A

53. The role of pressure groups is confined to the welfare of

(A)    All the sections of society within a state

(B)      Its members only

(C)    The weaker section of society

(D)      None of the above.

Ans —-B

54. 73rd Amendment to the Constitution of India provides for

(A)    Two tiers of Panchayati Raj institutions at the village and district levels

(B)      Two tiers of Panchayati Raj institutions at the village and block levels

(C)    Two tiers of Panchayati Raj institutions at the block and district levels

(D)      Three tiers of Panchayati Raj insntutions at the village, block and district levels.

Ans —-D

55. Communalism in the Indian context means

(A)    Serving the community in a befitting manner

(B)      Using communal identity for political gains

(C)    A gulp of people bound by ethnic feelings

(D)      Crating friendly relations with other communities.

Ans —-B

56. The best form of federalism suited for a country like India is

(A)    Centralized federalism

(B)      Bargaining federalism

(C)    Cooperative federalism

(D)      Conflicting federalism.

Ans —-C

57. According to the political scientist, Almond, all systems of government perform two basic functions. namely

(A)    Import and export functions

(B)      Input and output functions

(C)    Active and proactive functions

(D)      Information and logistic functions.

Ans —-B

58. Proclamation of emergency by the President of India can be made on the written advice of the Cabinet only. This provision has been added

(A)    After the 44th Constitutional Amendment

(B)      After the 42nd Constitutional Amendment

(C)    By the Constituent Assembly in the Constitution of India

(D)      By the Supreme Court of India in 1975.

Ans —-A

59. “Man by nature is a social and political animal” is the cornerstone of the philosophy of

(A)    Plato

(B)      Aristotle

(C)    Socrates

(D)      None of these.

Ans —-B

60, Which of the following has been wrongly listed as a traditional approach

(A)    Legal Approach

(B)      Historical Approach

(C)    Philosophical Approach

(D)      Behavioural Approach.

Ans —-D

61. The pluralist theory of sovereignty believes in

(A)    Unlimited Sovereign Power

(B)      Concentration of Sovereign Power

(C)    Distribution of Sovereign Power

(D)      Supremacy of the Constitution.

Ans —-C

62. Which of the following is not correct about the New Social Movements?

(A)    They are movements of disadvantaged and oppressed only

(B)      They are more concerned with quality of life

(C)    They use ‘protest‘ politics as instruments

(D)      The new political activism.

Ans —-A

63. The permanent members of UN Security Council are

(A)    China, India, USA, Britain and France

(B)      Britain, France, China, Russia and USA

(C)    USA, China, France, Britain and Germany

(D)      France, Britain, Russia, USA and India.

Ans —-B

64. Which among the following is characterized by independence in relations with the other states ?

(A)    Liberty

(B)      Rights

(C)    Authority

(D)      Sovereignty.

Ans —-D

65. Characteristics of non-party movements are

(A)    They are led by voluntary organizations

(B)      They do not contest elections

(C)    They encourage direct and active participation by the people in solving their issues

(D)      All of the above.

Ans —-D

66. The legislature having two houses is known as

(A)    Uni-cameral

(B)      Bi-Cameral

(C)    Upper House

(D)      Lower House.

Ans —-B

67. In a welfare state, the government

(A)    Restricts the liberty of the individuals

(B)      Determines the religion of the people

(C)    Controls the trade and commerce

(D)      Helps the people against poverty. old age and unemployment.

Ans —-D

68. Which of the following is not a duty of the State?

(A)    To serve the people

(B)      To protect the people

(C)    To promote the health of the people

(D)      To command the people.

Ans —-D

69. “A man is born free and everywhere he is in chains”, whose words are these?

(A)    Rousseau

(B)      M. K. Gandhi

(C)    Hegel

(D)      B.R. Ambedkar.

Ans —-A

70. Which one of the following is not the organ of a government?

(A)    Executive

(B)      Legislature

(C)    Judiciary

(D)      Political Parties.

Ans —-D

71. For which of the following the democracy does not stand?

(A)    Equality

(B)      Liberty

(C)    Fraternity

(D)      Dynasty Rule.

Ans —-D

72. An Independent Judiciary is

(A)    A safeguard for the civil liberties of the people

(B)      A danger to the constitution

(C)    An obstacle to the spirit of good governance

(D)      An obstacle to the democracy.

Ans —-A

73. “Democracy is a government of the people, by the people and for the people.” Who stated this?

(A)    J .S. Mill

(B)      T.H. Green

(C)    Jawahar Lal Nehru

(D)      Abraham Lincoln.

Ans —-D

74. Where there is no hereditary king but an elected head of the state, it is known as

(A)    Democracy

(B)      Monarchy

(C)    Republic

(D)      Federation.

Ans —-C

75. Which one of the following is not the function of the executive in a state?

(A)    To appoint and dismiss the ministers

(B)      To enforce the laws passed by the legislature

(C)    To appoint and dismiss the legislatures

(D)      To run the administration of the country.

Ans —-C

76. By Parliament we mean

(A)    Lok Sabha

(B)      Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha

(C)    Rajya Sabha

(D)      Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha and the President.

Ans —-D

77. Who among the following persons, was responsible for the merger of  Princely States into the Indian Dominion?

(A)    Sir Vithalbhai Patel

(B)      Dr. Rajendra Prasad

(C)    Sardar Vallabh Bhai Patel

(D)      Dr. B.R. Ambedkar.

Ans —-C

78. A coalition government in a country is generally formed where there is

(A)    Two Party System

(B)      One Party System

(C)    Multi-Party System dominated by one Party

(D)      No Party System.

Ans —-C

79. The signatories to the Panchasheel declaration were

(A)    India and Sri Lanka

(B)      India and Pakistan

(C)    Pakistan and China

(D)      India and China.

Ans —-D

80. Who among the following persons is acknowledged as the father of the Indian Constitution ?

(A)    Mahatma Gandhi

(B)      Jawahar Lal Nehru

(C)    Dr. B.R. Ambedkar

(D)      Dr. Rajendra Prasad.

Ans —-C

81. The author of “Politics Among Nations” is

(A)    Hans J. Morgenthau

(B)      Palmer and Perkins

(C)    Woodrow Wilson

(D)      None of these.

Ans —-A

82. The Idea of SAARC was generated by

(A)    India

(B)      Pakistan

(C)    Sri Lanka

(D)      Bangladesh.

Ans —-D

83. Non-Permanent members of the Security Council are

(A)    Five

(B)      Seven

(C)    Ten

(D)      Fifteen.

Ans —-C

84. “Rise and Fall of Great Powers” is written by

(A)    Paul Kennedy

(B)      S.P. Huntington

(C)    Noam Chomskey

(D)      Francis Fukuyama.

Ans —-A

85. When USSR was disintegrated ?

(A)    April, 1990

(B)      December, 1991

(C)    January, 1992

(D)      None of these.

Ans —-B

86. The Treaty of Westphalia established modern nation-state system in the year

(A)    1684

(B)      1648

(C)    1664

(D)      None of these.

Ans —-B

87. In India, “Collegium System” was introduced in relation to

(A)    The Executive

(B)      The Legislature

(C)    The Judiciary

(D)      Union-State Relations.

Ans —-C

88. Weapons of mass destruction include

(A)    Nuclear, chemical and biological weapons

(B)      Nuclear, conventional and biological weapons

(C)    Chemical, ballistic and conventional weapons

(D)      None of these.

Ans —-A

89. Which of the following is a principle stated in the UN Charter?

(A)    States are equal under International Law

(B)      States have full sovereignty over their own affairs

(C)    States should have full independence and territorial integrity

(D)      All of the above.

Ans —-D

90. For elections to the Lok Sabha and State Assemblies in India, which of the following systems is used ?

(A)    Territorial Representation

(B)      Proportional Representation

(C)    Functional Representation

(D)      None of these.

Ans —-A

91- South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation (SAARC) consists of

(A)    Seven States

(B)      Eight States

(C)    Five States

(D)      None of these.

Ans —-B

92.  Which of the following were carved out of Kangra as new districts in Himachal Pradesh?

(A)    Mandi, Una and Hamirpur

(B)      Una, Hamirpur and Bilaspur

(C)    Una and Hamirpur

(D)      None of these.

Ans —-C

93. In the year 1971, Himachal Pradesh became

(A)    The 18th State of the Republic of India

(B)      The 15th State of the Republic of India

(C)    The 2oth State of the Republic of India

(D)      None of the above.

Ans —-A

94. International Relations during 1945-1990 were characterized by

(A)    Bi-Polar System

(B)      Multi-Polar System

(C)    Uni-Polar System

 (D)      None of these.

Ans —-A

95. The author of the famous book “Clash of Civilizations” is

(A)    Francis Fukuyama

(B)      S. P. Huntington

(C)    Paul Kennedy

(D)      Noam Chomskey.

Ans —-B

96. Who wrote the book “Politics in India”?

(A)    Rajni Kothari

(B)      Paul R. Brass

(C)    Myron Weiner

(D)      Iqbal Narain.

Ans —-A

97. Universal Declaration on Human Rights was adopted by the UN in

(A)    1978

(B)      1958

(C)    1948

(D)      1968.

Ans —-C

98. The UN General Assembly is

(A)    The principle organ of UNO

(B)      An ordinary organ of the UNO

(C)    A check on the Security Council

(D)      None of these.

Ans —-A

99. Indian policy of non-alignment during Nehru era stood for

(A)    Acting as a mediator between nations

(B)      Non-involvement in the power block politics

(C)    Taking side with one of the super powers

(D)      None of these.

Ans —-B

100. At the time of its emergence on 15 April, 1948 Himachal Pradesh was a

(A)    Chief-Commissioner’s Province

(B)      Union Territory

(C)    Part-C State

(D)      None of the above.

Ans —-A